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PANCE Practice Question for December 2nd

A 37-year-old woman presents with a swollen and tender left wrist. The symptoms began approximately a day earlier and have become increasingly severe. She has noted a fever and shaking chills last night. She has no past medical history and takes no medications, except for ibuprofen for occasional premenstrual cramps. On physical examination the wrist has decreased ROM and is tender to palpation. The joint space has an obvious effusion and is tender, erythematous, and warm.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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