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A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital because of 4 days of joint pain. Initially she had diffuse joint pain that would "travel" from her wrists to her elbows and to her knees. Over the last 24 hours, however, she has had intense pain and swelling localized to her right knee. She denies any trauma to the area. She denies any fevers or chills but admits to mild dysuria that she attributed to a urinary tract infection. Further history reveals that she has had unprotected sex with 4 partners in the last 3 months. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 120/70 mm Hg, pulse 113/min, and respirations 18/min. The right knee is swollen and tender. She has scattered necrotic pustules on her palms and soles. Arthrocentesis is performed and a complete blood count and blood cultures are obtained.

Hemoglobin:14.0 mg/dL
Leukocytes:10,000/mm3
Platelets:170,000/mm3
Hematocrit:36%

Gram stain of the synovial fluid is shown.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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