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USMLE 2CK Practice Question for October 25th

A 21-year-old woman comes to the university health center because of fever and lower abdominal pain for the past 3 days. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She reports being sexually active with one partner, and they have been together for 3 months. She has not noticed any unusual discharge. Her past medical history includes an allergy to penicillin, although she cannot describe what kind of reaction occurred. Her temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F). Physical examination shows diffuse bilateral lower quadrant abdominal tenderness, without guarding or rebound. Pelvic examination shows a purulent discharge from the endocervical canal, cervical motion tenderness, and bilateral adnexal tenderness without masses. A cervical swab is sent for a nucleic acid amplification test. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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