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USMLE 2CK Practice Question for March 18th

A 72-year-old man with a history of peripheral vascular disease and recurrent chest pain underwent cardiac catheterization three hours ago. Angiography showed 80% occlusion of the left main coronary artery. He now has diarrhea and severe constant mid-abdominal pain. His temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), pulse is 102/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 170/90 mm Hg. The lungs are clear, and the abdomen is soft and nondistended without focal tenderness to palpation. Bowel sounds are hypoactive, and no masses are palpable. Rectal examination reveals occult blood in the stool. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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